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Which type of shock causes a temporary loss of motor, sensory, and reflex functions below the level of a lesion?

Spinal shock (page 402)

According to the rule of nines, burns of the anterior trunk and both anterior arms account for which percentage of body toàn thân surface area?

27 percent

Which effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the heart?
A. It increases peripheral vascular resistance.
B. It enhances atrioventricular node function.
C. It shortens His-Purkinje and ventricular muscle refractoriness.
D. It slows sinoatrial node discharge.

Parasympathetic stimulation slows sinoatrial node discharge. Sympathetic stimulation enhances atrioventricular node function, shortens His-Purkinje and ventricular muscle refractoriness, and increases peripheral vascular resistance.

Hypertension is a finding in which type of poisoning?

A. Opioid
B. Antidepressant
C. Anticholinergic
D. Organophosphate

For a patient with chronic immune thrombocytopenia, (low levels of platelets),which intervention is the initial treatment?

A. Infuse intravenous immunoglobulin.
B. Administer prednisone (Deltasone).
C. Prepare the patient for a splenectomy.
D. Administer cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan).

B. Administer prednisone (Deltasone).

For which disorder is Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) (Analgesic) most commonly administered?

D. Urethritis / Acute Cystitis - UTI (page 355)

Rhabdomyolysis is a complication of which type of toxicity?

A. Central nervous system stimulant
B. Opiate
C. Tricyclic antidepressant
D. Calcium channel blocker

A. Central nervous system stimulant. Rhabdomyolysis is when muscle tissue breakdown results in the release of a protein (myoglobin) into the blood. Myoglobin can damage the kidneys.
Symptoms include dark, reddish urine, a decreased amount of urine, weakness, and muscle aches.
Early treatment with aggressive fluid replacement reduces the risk of kidney damage.

Which intervention is used to treat a patient with ventricular fibrillation who has an implantable cardiac defibrillator?

Apply hands-không lấy phí adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position and defibrillate.

For which disorder is phenazopyridine (Pyridium) most commonly administered?

D. Urethritis

Which term defines pain caused by the stretching of a hollow organ and is described as cramping or a sensation of gas?

Visceral pain

When a patient is in the compensatory stage of shock, the body toàn thân preferentially maintains blood flow to which organs?

heart and brain

Which laboratory test result should the nurse expect in a patient with alcoholic ketoacidosis?

Below normal to slightly elevated serum glucose level (page 141)

Which finding is characteristic of preeclampsia?

Proteinuria / Oliguria (page 486)

Sciatic nerve damage is associated with dislocation of which joint?

A. Patellar
B. Knee
C. Hip
D. Ankle

C. Hip

Which intervention is indicated for a patient with circumferential full-thickness burns of the chest, inadequate chest expansion, and restlessness?

Escharotomy

Calcium channel blockers are indicated to treat which dysrhythmia?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Accelerated junctional tachycardia
C. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II
D. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

Treatment of atrial fibrillation aims to control the rapid ventricular rate with medications, such as calcium channel blockers or beta-blockers. Calcium channel blockers are not used to treat the other dysrhythmias listed. Accelerated junctional tachycardia is a transient rhythm that only requires treatment of the underlying disorder. Patients with second-degree atrioventricular block, type II, require careful monitoring and may need transcutaneous pacing. Treatment for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is magnesium sulfate and defibrillation if the patient's condition is unstable.

Activated charcoal can absorb which substance?

A. Cyanide
B. Kerosene
C. Lead
D. Potassium

Which herb can decrease the clotting time?

A. Evening primrose
B. Cinnamon
C. Garlic
D. Skull cap

B. Cinnamon

Which medication causes urine retention?

D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

The ingestion of the foxglove plant can cause which finding?

A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Agitation
D. Lacrimation

B. Bradycardia

Which medication causes urine retention?

D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

For a patient with a gunshot wound, which intervention is appropriate?

A. Perform a neurovascular assessment of each limb.
B. Estimate the amount of injury based on the wounds appearance.
C. Remove projectiles with Kelly clamps and place them in a sterile container.
D. Label the entrance and exits wounds.

A. Perform a neurovascular assessment of each limb.

Which disorder is associated with fatty, foul-smelling stool?

Pancreatitis

Emergency needle thoracentesis is a treatment for which type of shock

obstructive shock

In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect to find which effect of ketoacidosis?

Tachycardia

In a pregnant patient, which assessment finding may signal the onset of preeclampsia?

A systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mm Hg

Which dysrhythmia has an irregularly irregular ventricular response

Atrial fibrillation

Which of the following statements regarding autonomic dysreflexia is correct?

It may occur any time after spinal shock has subsided.

A scald burn is most likely to result from which mechanism?

Exposure to water 140°F (60°C)

Which intervention is used to treat a patient with ventricular fibrillation who has an implantable cardiac defibrillator?
A. Apply hands-không lấy phí adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position and defibrillate.
B. Wait for the device to fire.
C. Apply hands-không lấy phí adhesive patches in the standard position and cardiovert.
D. Apply one hands-không lấy phí adhesive patch over the device and the other on the opposite side of the sternum and defibrillate.

When a patient with an implantable cardiac defibrillator requires external defibrillation because the implanted device has malfunctioned or failed, ideally place hands-không lấy phí adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position. Do not wait for the device to fire because a malfunction has occurred if ventricular fibrillation is present. Cardioversion is not appropriate because no QRS complexes are present for synchronization. Do not place the adhesive patches directly over the implantable cardiac defibrillator.

Organophosphate toxicity produces which sign or symptom?

A. Constipation
B. Salivation
C. Mydriasis
D. Hot, dry skin

A patient with severe neutropenia has a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C). Which intervention is indicated for this patient?

A. Obtain blood cultures.
B. Maintain respiratory isolation.
C. Administer packed red blood cells.
D. Administer antibody-purified factor IX.

A. Obtain blood cultures.

The administration of azithromycin (Zithromax) is indicated for which sexually transmitted infection?

C. Chlamydia infection

Which gastric decontamination technique is most effective for treating a patient who has swallowed cocaine-filled balloons?

A. Whole bowel irrigation
B. Activated charcoal administration
C. Gastric lavage
D. Syrup of ipecac administration

A. Whole bowel irrigation

Which of the following is the first step performed when removing a helmet from a suspected spinal injured patient?

Apply in-line stabilization by placing hands on each side of the helmet with fingers on the patient's mandible.

The administration of azithromycin (Zithromax) is indicated for which sexually transmitted infection?

C. Chlamydia infection

Which fracture results in multiple splintered bone fragments?

A. Depressed fracture
B. Impacted fracture
C. Compression fracture
D. Comminuted fracture

D. Comminuted fracture

Which sign is an indicator of cholecystitis

Murphy's sign

Which disorder is a cause of cardiogenic shock?

Dysrhythmias

A patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is likely to have which laboratory test result?

Normal blood pH

Which of these is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

Uterine atony

Which medication should be administered during the resuscitation of a patient with ventricular fibrillation?

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by bacteria and develops as a small bump in the genitals?

A. Chancroid

Which hydrocarbon is least likely to result in aspiration?

A. Lighter fluid
B. Kerosene
C. Gasoline
D. Motor oil

Which adjunct is most effective in managing adults with sickle cell disease?

A. Hydroxyurea (Droxin)
B. Heparin
C. Prednisone (Deltasone)
D. Rho(D) immunoglobulin (RhoGAM)

A. Hydroxyurea (Droxin)

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by bacteria and develops as a small bump in the genitals?

A. Chancroid

Which finding is a sign of serotonin syndrome?

A. Bradycardia
B. Diaphoresis
C. Hypothermia
D. Lethargy

B. Diaphoresis

Which sign or symptom is a characteristic of carbon monoxide poisoning?

Headache

Which receptor is located in the lungs?
A. Alpha
B. Beta1
C. Beta2
D. Dopaminergic

Beta2 receptors are located in the lungs and peripheral vessels. Alpha receptors exist in vascular smooth muscle. Beta1 receptors are in the myocardium. Dopaminergic receptors are found in renal, mesenteric, cerebral, and coronary arteries.

A fracture of which bone does not always require anatomic alignment for healing?

A. Wrist
B. Hip
C. Elbow
D. Clavicle

D. Clavicle

Which organ is responsible for absorbing nutrients and other products of digestion

Small intestine

In a pediatric patient, which finding is an early sign of shock?

Delayed capillary refill

Which finding is most closely associated with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone?

Seizures

Your patient with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate while waiting to be transferred out of the emergency department. While the patient is in your care, you should monitor her closely for which finding?

Absence of deep tendon reflexes

Which disorder is likely to produce a delta wave on the cardiac monitor?

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

Which of the following is the first step performed when initiating spinal protection?

Leader is positioned the head of the patient with hands on each side of the patient's head.

Which dysrhythmia has premature P waves with a different configuration than other P waves in the cardiac cycle?
A. Atrial flutter
B. Premature atrial complex
C. First-degree atrioventricular block
D. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II

Premature atrial complexes are ectopic beats that are initiated by an irritable atrial focus. P waves are present, but because the ectopic focus originates the impulse outside the sinoatrial node, the premature P waves have a different configuration. Atrial flutter causes no P waves, but it causes flutter waves in a sawtoothed pattern. First-degree atrioventricular block has a P wave for every QRS complex, but the PR interval is consistently prolonged. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II, has one or more P waves for every QRS complex. In first-degree atrioventricular block and second-degree atrioventricular block, type II, the P wave configuration is consistent from P wave to P wave

Nutmeg toxicity is likely to cause which finding?

A. Hallucinations
B. Salivation
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Seizures

In a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura, which finding should you expect?

A. Tachypnea
B. Severe pain
C. Petechiae
D. Narrowing pulse pressure

C. Petechiae

Which is the main electrolyte disturbance in rhabdomyolysis?

C. Hyperkalemia

Which drug can cause a sense of omnipotence, excitement, hyperalertness, hyperactivity, or hypersexuality?

A. Clonidine (Catapres)
B. Methaqualone (Quaalude)
C. Amphetamine (Adderall)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)

C. Amphetamine (Adderall)

Among patients with contact burns, which body toàn thân region is the most common injury site?

Palm of the hand

Volkmann's contracture may be a complication of which fracture?

A. Shoulder fracture
B. Elbow fracture
C. Scapular fracture
D. Clavicular fracture

B. Elbow fracture

Which is the main electrolyte disturbance in rhabdomyolysis?

C. Hyperkalemia

What is the cardinal sign of lower gastrointestinal bleeding?

hematochezia

Which type of shock is typically associated with acute spinal cord disruption from trauma or spinal anesthesia?

Neurogenic shock

Which medications can precipitate a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state?

Diuretics

For a patient with an obstetric emergency, what are the priorities during the initial assessment?

Airway, breathing, and circulation

A preexcitation syndrome, such as Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome, results from which conduction pattern?

Atrial impulses bypass the typical electrical pathway and activate the ventricular myocardium directly.

For a patient with partial airway obstruction who cannot tolerate the supine position for spinal stabilization, which intervention is appropriate?

Protect the cervical spine in the position the patient uses to protect the airway.

Which method delivers nonsynchronous energy to the myocardium?
A. Transcutaneous pacing
B. Cardioversion
C. Defibrillation
D. Transvenous pacing

Defibrillation is the nonsynchronous delivery of energy to the heart during any phase of the cardiac cycle. The intent of this energy delivery is to simultaneously depolarize all of the heart cells, interrupting the abnormal electrical rhythm and allowing the sinoatrial node to resume its normal pacemaker activity. In synchronized cardioversion, energy delivery is timed to correspond with the QRS complex to avoid shock delivery during the relative refractory period, which can induce ventricular fibrillation. Transcutaneous and transvenous pacemakers electrically stimulate a heartbeat when the heart's intrinsic electrical system cannot generate a rate that is adequate to support cardiac output.

Which type of toxicity causes hyperglycemia?

A. Methanol
B. Ethanol
C. Isopropanol
D. Ethylene glycol

Which disorder is an inherited disease?

A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
B. Acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Acute leukemia
D. Sickle cell disease

D. Sickle cell disease

Which disorder causes unbearable pain due to increased pressure and dilation of the kidney?

B. Prostatitis

For which drugs can you obtain blood levels to determine toxicity?

A. Morphine and hydrocodone (Vicodin)
B. Marijuana and cocaine
C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) and digoxin (Lanoxin)
D. Diazepam (Valium) and midazolam (Versed)

C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) and digoxin (Lanoxin)

Which hourly amount of intravenous fluid should the nurse administer to a 75-kg patient with a significant electrical burn?

1,500 mL/hour

Which intervention is indicated for a patient with an amputation?

A. Maintain the limb in the correct anatomic position.
B. Clean the amputated part with povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution.
C. Soak the stump in distilled water.
D. Place the amputated part directly in ice.

A. Maintain the limb in the correct anatomic position.

Which disorder causes unbearable pain due to increased pressure and dilation of the kidney?

B. Prostatitis

A woman, age 27, presents to your emergency department with chills, fever, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and tachycardia. The abdominal pain becomes localized in her right lower quadrant. What is your priority intervention?

Initiate intravenous access.

Which statement accurately characterizes shock in a pregnant patient?

The risk of fetal distress exists despite maternal stability.

The inadequate or impaired secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH [vasopressin]) causes which endocrine emergency?

Diabetes insipidus

A patient reports that she had a positive pregnancy test 1 week ago and now has left lower quadrant pain, which was severe and then seemed to get better. On assessment, you note that she has a weak radial pulse, tachycardia, and pallor. Which intervention should you anticipate as the priority?

Establish vascular access.

A patient has stable, monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. To perform synchronized cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator and convert this dysrhythmia, which energy setting should be used first?

100 joules

A paraplegic patient comes to the ED with a severe headache and blurred vision. Findings include a flushed face, severe hypertension, and bradycardia. What is the most likely cause of these signs and symptoms?

Constipation

Which medication should be administered during the resuscitation of a patient with ventricular fibrillation?
A. Ibutilide (Corvert)
B. Procainamide (Pronestyl)
C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. Sotalol (Betapace)

During the resuscitation of a patient with ventricular fibrillation, administer intravenous epinephrine (Adrenalin) or vasopressin (Pitressin) to enhance the effectiveness of the cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Procainamide (Pronestyl) or sotalol (Betapace) may be prescribed for a patient with stable ventricular tachycardia. Ibutilide is used to convert new-onset atrial fibrillation.

A man, age 75, presents with blurred vision, flushing, fever, tachycardia, and urine retention. These manifestations suggest which toxidrome?

A. Anticholinergic
B. Opioid
C. Sympathomimetic
D. Cholinergic

Which statement accurately characterizes immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A. It is caused by immune autoreactive antibodies.
B. It occurs primarily in adolescents.
C. It is more common in women.
D. It follows a bacterial infection.

A. It is caused by immune autoreactive antibodies.

Which patient should have priority for room placement and evaluation?

A. A man, age 30, with signs and symptoms of testicular torsion

Glucagon (GlucaGen) is the antidote for which type of poisoning?

A. Opiate
B. Beta-blocker
C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D. Digitalis glycoside

B. Beta-blocker

Which type of burn causes extensive tissue damage from liquefaction necrosis?

Chemical burn from an alkali

Which injury is defined as a complete joint disruption?

A. Subluxation
B. Third-degree strain
C. Dislocation
D. Third-degree sprain

C. Dislocation

Which patient should have priority for room placement and evaluation?

A. A man, age 30, with signs and symptoms of testicular torsion

Which laboratory test result indicates pancreatitis?

Elevated lipase level

If a patient's pH is less than 7.1, what is the most appropriate initial treatment?

Ensure adequate oxygenation and ventilation.

In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect which laboratory finding?

Decreased serum bicarbonate level

A woman, 34 weeks pregnant, presents with acute respiratory distress, hypotension, and tachycardia. She complains of a headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain. You should suspect which disorder?

HELLP syndrome

Which disorder can initiate atrial flutter?

Pulmonary embolism

Which of the following signs would be anticipated in a patient with neurogenic shock?

Warm, dry skin

Which sự kiện corresponds with ventricular contraction?
A. Chordae tendineae relaxation
B. Diastole
C. Closing of the aortic valve
D. Opening of the pulmonary valve

The systolic phase of the cardiac cycle corresponds with ventricular contraction and the opening of the pulmonary semilunar and aortic semilunar valves. During ventricular contraction, the atrioventricular valves close, and the chordae tendineae contract to prevent blood regurgitation.

Activated charcoal may be used beyond the 60-minute administration window to treat the ingestion of which substance?

A. An anticholinergic medication
B. An organic solvent
C. A mineral acid
D. Iron

During the primary survey, which finding requires immediate intervention first?

Difficulty swallowing

Which disorder may result from radiation therapy for a malignant pelvic disease?

B. Prostatitis

An overdose of which drug can cause hyperreflexia, opisthotonus, and increased muscle tone?

A. Carisoprodol (Soma)
B. Baclofen (Lioresal)
C. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
D. Buspirone (BuSpar)

A. Carisoprodol (Soma)

A patient with an absolute neutrophil count of 600 cell/mm3 is which level of risk for infection?

A. None
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. High

C. Moderate

When fitting a patient for a cane, the elbow should be flexed to what degree?

A. 15 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 90 degrees

B. 30 degrees

our patient is 37 weeks pregnant and reports some vaginal bleeding. She denies pain and trauma. On assessment, you detect a fetal heart rate of 140 beats per minute. Which disorder should you suspect?

Placenta previa

Which of the following statements regarding spinal cord injury without radiographic abnormality is accurate?

It is an injury primarily found in younger children.

Which disorder is potentially reversible if the cause is immediately treated?

Pulseless electrical activity

Which disorder may result from radiation therapy for a malignant pelvic disease?

B. Prostatitis

When a stressor adversely affects a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus, which action occurs first?

Gluconeogenesis

Treatment for an acute exacerbation of diverticulitis includes which measure?

Rehydration with a crystalloid solution

Which parameter is a resuscitation endpoint for shock?

Central venous pressure of 10 cm H2O

Which bacteria is the primary organism that causes urinary tract infections?

A. Escherichia coli

In most people, which area of the heart receives its blood supply from the right coronary artery?
A. Posterior surface of the left ventricle
B. Anterior surface of the ventricular septum
C. Sinoatrial node
D. Left atrium

In about 60 percent of the population, the right coronary artery supplies the sinoatrial node. The left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior surface of the ventricular septum. The circumflex artery supplies the posterior surface of the left ventricle and the left atrium.

Increased bowel sounds are a finding in which type of poisoning?

A. Barbiturate
B. Anticholinergic
C. Tricyclic antidepressant
D. Organophosphate

When caring for a patient with superior vena cava syndrome, you should be alert for which finding?

A. Hemarthrosis
B. Abdominal pain
C. Laryngeal swelling
D. Petechiae

C. Laryngeal swelling

Which bacteria is the primary organism that causes urinary tract infections?

A. Escherichia coli

Urinary alkalinization increases the renal elimination of which substance?

A. Nifedipine (Procardia)
B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. Phenobarbital (Luminal)
D. Paroxetine (Paxil)

C. Phenobarbital (Luminal)

A partial-thickness burn has which characteristic?

Damage of the dermal layer

After ensuring the airway, breathing, circulation and disability, what is the priority intervention for a patient with a deformed wrist and several abrasions caused by falling from a significant height?

A. Examine for other injuries.
B. Cover an open fracture with a moist sterile dressing.
C. Splint the obviously deformed wrist.
D. Administer ibuprofen (Motrin) for pain.

A. Examine for other injuries.

When assessing a patient with gastroenteritis, the nurse should expect which finding?

Abdominal cramping

You are caring for a patient in the emergency department who is extremely anxious. She is short of breath and slightly nauseated. She has large red hives all over her body toàn thân and reports that her skin is burning and itchy. She is flushed, hypotensive, and tachycardic. What type of shock should you suspect?

Anaphylactic shock

Which intervention is indicated to treat a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?

Administration of 5% dextrose in normal saline (D5NS) solution for a glucose level of 250 to 300 mg/dL

A patient presents to triage and says she may be pregnant because she missed her last menstrual period. She reports pelvic pain, left shoulder pain, and dizziness. She denies trauma and has tachycardia. Which disorder should the nurse suspect?

Ectopic pregnancy

Which drug may be used to convert new-onset atrial fibrillation?

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

Which of the following vertebral column injuries is most likely to result in a bone fragment impinging on the spinal cord?

Teardrop fracture

An unstable patient with polymorphic ventricular tachycardia requires which electrical treatment with a biphasic defibrillator?
A. Cardioversion 200 joules
B. Cardioversion 100 joules
C. Defibrillation 100 joules
D. Defibrillation 200 joules

Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia in an unstable patient requires defibrillation, using 200 joules. For a biphasic defibrillator, use the manufacturer's recommended energy level (120 to 200 joules) for the initial defibrillation. If the manufacturer's recommendation is unknown, use the maximum energy available. Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia with a pulse calls for cardioversion with 100 joules. Defibrillation 100 joules and cardioversion 200 joules are not appropriate interventions for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

Radiography can help detect which substance(s)?

A. Organophosphates
B. Iron
C. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
D. Hydrocarbons

A patient with hemophilia who fell off a skateboard is risk for which problem?

A. Acute chest syndrome
B. Spinal cord compression
C. Hemarthrosis
D. Superior vena cava syndrome

C. Hemarthrosis

Which sexually transmitted infection causes pink-gray soft lesions with no discharge?

D. Human papillomavirus

An overdose of which nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug can cause seizures?

A. Ketorolac (Toradol)
B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)
C. Indomethacin (Indocin)
D. Piroxicam (Feldene)

D. Piroxicam (Feldene)

According to the American Burn Association's classification of injury severity, where should care occur for an adult younger than age 40 with deep, partial-thickness burns over 27 percent of the total body toàn thân surface area?

Specialized burn facility

Which sexually transmitted infection causes pink-gray soft lesions with no discharge?

D. Human papillomavirus

What is the initial step in splint application?

A. Cleanse the area to be splinted.
B. Assess the neurovascular status.
C. Apply the appropriate padding.
D. Apply the appropriate splint material.

B. Assess the neurovascular status.

Which disorder may cause hypovolemic shock?

Burns

Which effect is associated with Cushing's syndrome?

Delayed wound healing

You are discharging a woman who was diagnosed with a threatened abortion. Which patient instruction is appropriate?

"Return to the emergency department or call your primary caregiver if the bleeding increases."

An unstable patient with polymorphic ventricular tachycardia requires which electrical treatment with a biphasic defibrillator?

Defibrillation 200 joules

In which of the following injuries would you find paralysis below the injury and crude touch, pressure, and proprioception intact?

Anterior cord syndrome

Which medication is used to treat gastroesophageal reflux disease by increasing the lower esophageal sphincter pressure?

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Which finding is a sign of circulatory compromise caused by a significant burn injury?

Ileus

In which dysrhythmia does a compensatory pause commonly occur?
A. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II
B. Bundle branch block
C. Premature ventricular complex
D. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

Premature ventricular complexes are initiated by an irritable (ectopic) focus in the ventricles and cause a compensatory pause on the cardiac monitor. (The preceding R-to-R interval equals the sum of two R-to-R intervals of the underlying rhythm.) A compensatory pause is not associated with the other dysrhythmias listed

Which drug is used to treat the effects of organophosphate poisoning?

A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B. Succinylcholine (Anectine)
C. Atropine
D. Sodium bicarbonate

Which blood product contains the largest amount of factor VIII?

A. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Cryoprecipitate
C. Platelets
D. Packed red blood cells

B. Cryoprecipitate

Which disorder is an intrarenal cause of acute kidney injury?

C. Rhabdomyolysis

A patient presents with a gastrointestinal upset that has not subsided despite having taken Pepto-Bismol and Alka Seltzer several times in the past 48 hours. He now complains of ringing in his ears. You should suspect that this patient has mild toxicity from which substance?

A. Salicylate
B. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C. Ibuprofen (Motrin)
D. Naproxen (Aleve)

A. Salicylate

Which intervention demonstrates appropriate splint application?

A. Avoid the gradual traction of the extremity because it is contraindicated.
B. Correct angulation if neurovascular compromise is not present.
C. Make sure the splint covers the injured area and the joint above it.
D. Perform initial immobilization as soon as possible.

D. Perform initial immobilization as soon as possible.

Which disorder is an intrarenal cause of acute kidney injury?

C. Rhabdomyolysis

Which effect occurs in a patient with hypovolemic shock?

Decreased venous return to the heart

Alcoholic ketoacidosis causes which effect?

Glycogen stores are used.

When assessing a patient with vaginal bleeding and suspected abruptio placentae, the emergency nurse is likely to note which finding?

Severe abdominal pain

In the PAAS mnemonic for performing automated external defibrillation, what does the P stand for?

Power Pulse

Which of the following is a secondary injury to the spinal cord?

Edema

Which disorder can initiate atrial flutter?
A. Elevated intracranial pressure
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Hypokalemia
D. Mitral valve prolapse

Atrial flutter is usually initiated by a premature atrial complex and is the most common in patients with coronary artery disease, rheumatic heart disease, pulmonary embolism, or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Elevated intracranial pressure can initiate bradycardia. Hypokalemia is a cause of dysrhythmias, such as a junctional escape rhythm and ventricular dysrhythmias. Mitral valve prolapse can lead to paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia.

For a patient who has swallowed a foreign body toàn thân, such as a cocaine-filled balloon, which gastric decontamination technique is the most effective?

A. Whole bowel irrigation
B. Activated charcoal administration
C. Gastric lavage
D. Syrup of ipecac administration

Which finding is common among patients with acute anemia?

A. Widening pulse pressure
B. Hemarthrosis
C. Petechiae
D. Tachypnea

D. Tachypnea

In a patient with acute kidney injury, which electrolyte imbalance is expected?

A. Hypocalcemia

Which drug can cause pinpoint pupils, amnesia, and hypotension?

A. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
B. Dextromethorphan (Robitussin)
C. Amphetamine (Adderall)
D. Cocaine

B. Dextromethorphan (Robitussin)

Which patient is in danger of airway obstruction and likely to require early intubation?

A camper whose clothing ignited while barbequing

In a patient with acute kidney injury, which electrolyte imbalance is expected?

A. Hypocalcemia

Which dysrhythmia results from the continuous stimulation of two conduction pathways in the atrioventricular node?

Atrial fibrillation

Which dislocation may cause neurovascular compromise of the brachial artery?

A. Elbow dislocation
B. Acromioclavicular dislocation
C. Shoulder dislocation
D. Wrist dislocation

A. Elbow dislocation

Which of the following mechanisms would be involved when a patient's head is forcibly moved to the side during an assault?

Overrotation and distraction

When managing a patient with shock, which intervention is appropriate?

Obtain a manual blood pressure before using a noninvasive blood pressure monitor.

Which term refers to how many pregnancies the patient has had?

Gravidity

Which intervention is indicated for a patient with alcoholic ketoacidosis?

Thiamine administration

Which of the following devices provides the most rigid immobilization for a C1, C2 fracture?

Halo fixation device

During combustion, which material can cause cyanide poisoning?

Leather

Which sự kiện corresponds with diastole?
A. Closing of the mitral valve
B. Opening of the pulmonary valve
C. Filling of the ventricles
D. Relaxation of the atria

During diastole, the ventricles fill, the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves close, and the mitral and tricuspid valves open. This corresponds to electrical stimulation and mechanical contraction of the atria

Which disorder results from acute lead poisoning?

A. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
B. Agitation
C. Renal failure
D. Encephalopathy

An oncologic patient complains of back pain that worsens when he moves, coughs, sneezes, or lies supine. This patient should have a workup for which disorder?

A. Superior vena cava syndrome
B. Spinal cord compression
C. Sickle cell crisis
D. Hemophilia

B. Spinal cord compression

In which dysrhythmia does an impulse originate in the atrioventricular junction before the next expected sinus impulse?

Premature junctional complex

Which disorder is a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury?

B. Sepsis

Which disorder is a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury?

B. Sepsis

In a patient with a knee injury, which finding is of greatest concern?

A. The knee has a large amount of swelling.
B. Effective pain management requires opioids.
C. The patient cannot extend the great toe.
D. The patient has impaired mobility.

The test explains that C is correct, but marks it wrong. A and D are also wrong. Unknown if B works as an answer. It would have to be INEFFECTIVE PAIN MANAGEMENT to be correct.

What is the most sensitive sign of early shock in a pediatric patient?

Delayed capillary refill

Which imbalance should the nurse expect in a patient with acute adrenal insufficiency?

Hypoglycemia

HELLP syndrome is characterized by which triad of signs and symptoms?

Tachypnea, hypertension, and epigastric pain

Constipation is a side effect of which drug?

A. Hydrocodone
B. Aspirin (Bayer)
C. Cocaine
D. Paroxetine (Paxil)

A. Hydrocodone

For a patient with a minor thermal burn, the nurse should be prepared to perform which intervention?

Apply bacitracin (Bacitracin) to the wound before applying a dressing.

Which disorder is likely to produce a delta wave on the cardiac monitor?
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Atrial flutter
C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D. Bundle branch block

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome produces a delta wave (an abnormal "slurring" and slow rise of the initial upstroke of the QRS complex), which represents the early, abnormal depolarization of the ventricles. Atrial flutter is characterized by flutter waves, which have a sawtoothed pattern. In ventricular fibrillation, the ventricles quiver (fibrillate) rather than contract, producing no effective cardiac output. A block in one bundle branch causes the ventricle on that side to depolarize later than the ventricle on the intact side. This results in a wide, bizarre QRS complex.

Which signs and symptoms are likely to occur in a patient with a sedative-hypnotic toxidrome?

A. Blurred vision and urine retention
B. Decreased respirations and nystagmus
C. Hypothermia and decreased respirations
D. Bronchospasm and delirium

Which finding commonly occurs in patients with chronic anemia?

A. Complaints of feeling cold
B. Thirst
C. Shortness of breath
D. Cool, clammy skin

C. Shortness of breath

Which disorder is a postrenal cause of acute kidney injury?

D. Prostatic hypertrophy

In a patient who overdosed on cocaine, which finding is expected?

A. Nystagmus
B. Hypotension
C. Hypothermia
D. Tachycardia

D. Tachycardia

Which disorder is a postrenal cause of acute kidney injury?

D. Prostatic hypertrophy

A transverse fracture results from which mechanism?

A. Twisting force
B. Sharp, direct blow
C. Compression force
D. Forceful contraction of a muscle mass

B. Sharp, direct blow

Which laboratory result is most associated with increased mortality in the patient with shock?

Elevated serum lactate level

Which intervention is indicated for treating central diabetes insipidus?

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) replacement

A molar pregnancy is characterized by which pathophysiology?

The chorionic villi around the aborting embryo degenerate to form clusters of fluid-filled vesicles.

In which dysrhythmia does a compensatory pause commonly occur?

Premature ventricular complex

Which of the following is the most common mechanism for spinal trauma?

Motor vehicle crash

Which area of the heart receives its blood supply from the left circumflex artery?
A. Intraventricular septum
B. Bundle of His
C. Sinoatrial node
D. Atrioventricular node

The left circumflex artery supplies the bundle of His. The left anterior descending artery supplies the intraventricular septum, and the right coronary artery supplies the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes in most individuals.

Which decontamination method is most effective for treating heavy metal poisoning?

A. Whole bowel irrigation
B. Activated charcoal administration
C. Chelation therapy
D. Urine alkalinization

Pregnancy-induced hypertension places the patient risk for which condition?

A. Vaso-occlusive crisis
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
D. Chronic immune thrombocytopenia

C. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Which disorder is a complication of sexually transmitted infections?

B. Endocarditis

Cyproheptadine (Periactin) may be used to treat an overdose of which drug?

A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
B. Oxycodone (OxyContin)
C. Doxepin (Sinequan)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)

A. Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

For what amount of time would the patient be expected to demonstrate increased capillary permeability from large burns?

2 to 3 weeks

Which disorder is a complication of sexually transmitted infections?

B. Endocarditis

A traction splint is appropriate for a fracture of which site?

A. Hip
B. Knee
C. Upper third of the tibia
D. Fibula

C. Upper third of the tibia

Which statement accurately characterizes fluid resuscitation in a patient with hemorrhagic shock?

Aggressive fluid resuscitation can cause blood clots to dislodge.

To appropriately treat a conscious patient with hypoglycemia, the nurse should select which item to provide roughly 10 to 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate?

5 or 6 Life Savers&#-62;&#-82; candies

For a patient with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy in the ampulla, what is the surgical procedure of choice?

Salpingostomy

Patients with which type of premature complexes require close monitoring?

Multifocal premature ventricular complexes

In spinal stabilization of the adult, which action demonstrates correct stabilization technique?

Keep the patient's nose and umbilicus aligned all times.

A patient has stable, monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. To perform synchronized cardioversion with a biphasic defibrillator and convert this dysrhythmia, which energy setting should be used first?
A. 50 joules
B. 100 joules
C. 120 joules
D. 200 joules

If a biphasic defibrillator is used to manage a patient with stable, monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, the recommended energy level is 100 joules. The recommended energy level for supraventricular tachycardia and atrial flutter is 50 to 100 joules. The level for atrial fibrillation is 120 to 200 joules.

A repeat dose of activated charcoal is indicated for the ingestion of which substance?

A. Ethylene glycol
B. Lead
C. Fluoride
D. Digoxin (Lanoxin)

In a hematologic emergency, which finding requires priority intervention?

A. Hematemesis
B. Tachycardia
C. Frank bleeding from the mouth
D. Unusual bruising

C. Frank bleeding from the mouth

The nurse should teach a patient with which disorder not to wear tight clothing or synthetic underwear?

A. Urethritis

Which drug should you anticipate administering to a patient with clonazepam (Klonopin) toxicity?

A. Naloxone (Narcan)
B. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

B. Flumazenil (Romazicon)

When caring for a patient with an electrical burn, the nurse should consider which factor?

Alternating current is more likely to cause ventricular fibrillation.

Which age-related consideration applies to a geriatric patient with a fracture?

A. The bones are softer.
B. Healing takes longer.
C. The blood loss is more significant.
D. Future bone growth is affected.

B. Healing takes longer.

The nurse should teach a patient with which disorder not to wear tight clothing or synthetic underwear?

A. Urethritis

Which method delivers nonsynchronous energy to the myocardium?

Defibrillation

Which of the following statements regarding spinal stabilization is accurate?

A patient whose cervical spine is stabilized is secured on a backboard, with a rigid collar, straps the shoulders and hips and above the knees, head blocks and tape.

During times of decreased tissue perfusion, the body toàn thân shunts blood away from which organ?

Kidneys

For a patient with preeclampsia, what is the priority treatment?

Administer oxygen.

In which endocrine emergency is tongue edema a presenting sign?

Myxedema coma

Which of the following patients would most likely have a spinal injury?

An intoxicated patient with a severe head injury.

A patient admitted with an amphetamine overdose may require which key intervention?

A. Systemic alkalinization
B. Abdominal radiography
C. Administration of a proton pump inhibitor
D. Application of a cooling blanket

D. Application of a cooling blanket

In which dysrhythmia does the P wave disappear or occur just before or after the QRS complex?

Junctional escape rhythm

Which layer of the heart is made of smooth tissue and is the innermost portion of the atria and ventricles?
A. Myocardium
B. Endocardium
C. Visceral pericardium
D. Epicardium

The endocardium is the innermost portion of the atria and ventricles and is made of smooth tissue. The myocardium is the muscular middle layer. The visceral pericardium (epicardium) is the outer layer of the heart.

Sarin is an example of which type of substance?

A. Organophosphate
B. Anticholinergic
C. Central nervous system depressant
D. Heavy metal

Which type of cancer is a common cause of spinal cord compression?

A. Esophageal
B. Colon
C. Cervical
D. Breast

D. Breast

Which laboratory test is the primary diagnostic indicator of rhabdomyolysis?

D. Serum creatine phosphokinase level

Which burn injury is commonly associated with significant thermal damage of the upper airway?

Flash burn

Which laboratory test is the primary diagnostic indicator of rhabdomyolysis?

C. Hyperkalemia

Which type of nerve injury causes an inability to extend the thumb in a hitchhiker's sign?

A. Ulnar nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Peroneal nerve

B. Radial nerve

Which structure is a collection of specialized neural tissues that respond to small changes in vascular tone or pressure?

Baroreceptors

Which finding is associated with thyroid storm?

Tremors

Which disorder places a pregnant woman a higher risk of an amniotic fluid embolism?

Abruptio placentae

In a patient with acute kidney injury, which medication is used to improve cardiac conductivity?

D. Calcium chloride

Which factor influences cardiac contractility?
A. Preload
B. Afterload
C. Systemic vascular resistance
D. Postsystolic volume

Preload influences myocardial fiber length and stretch. The amount of stretch partly determines the strength of contraction (contractility). Afterload is the pressure in the arterial system that the heart must overcome to eject its ventricular blood volume. Afterload is commonly called systemic vascular resistance. Preload is associated with the volume of blood stretching the ventricles the end of diastole—not systole.

For a patient with poisoning, why is activated charcoal used?

A. To decrease the gastrointestinal transit time
B. To propel the gastric contents past the pylorus
C. To induce emesis
D. To prevent absorption

Which disorder results from reduced bone marrow production?

A. Hemophilia
B. Sickle cell anemia
C. Acute anemia
D. Aplastic anemia

D. Aplastic anemia

Which factor increases the risk for scald burns?

Diabetes

In a patient with acute kidney injury, which medication is used to improve cardiac conductivity?

D. Calcium chloride

Which bone fracture can damage the peroneal nerve, sciatic nerve, and popliteal artery?

A. Hip
B. Pelvis
C. Femur
D. Distal fibula

C. Femur

Which type of block causes one P wave to precede each QRS complex until a QRS complex is dropped in a regular pattern?

Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II

Which complication of shock has the highest mortality rate?

Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

Which of the following injuries is considered to be the most unstable?

Atlantoaxial joint dislocation

You should plan to monitor liver function for a patient with which type of toxicity?

A. Ketorolac (Toradol)
B. Aspirin (Bayer)
C. Indomethacin (Indocin)
D. Acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)

D. Acetaminophen with hydrocodone (Vicodin)

Which intervention is the first step in resuscitating a neonate?

Warming

Which finding should the nurse expect in a patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state?

Severe dehydration

Which body toàn thân component is more resistant to electrical current and is less easily damaged by electrical injury?

Fat

Patients with which type of premature complexes require close monitoring?
A. Premature atrial complexes
B. Premature junctional complexes
C. Unifocal premature ventricular complexes
D. Multifocal premature ventricular complexes

Patients who develop multifocal premature ventricular complexes (PVCs) should be closely monitored because multifocal PVCs indicate a more serious condition. Premature atrial complexes, premature junctional complexes, and unifocal premature

ventricular complexes can occur in healthy individuals and are usually benign.

Which patients have an increased risk of life-threatening complications from toxic exposure?

A. Male patients and pediatric patients
B. Female patients and geriatric patients
C. Pediatric patients and geriatric patients
D. Homeless patients and pregnant patients

Which disorder poses the greatest risk for the patient to develop deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary emboli?

A. Factor V Leiden thrombophilia
B. Hemophilia A
C. Von Willebrand's disease
D. Chronic immune thrombocytopenia

A. Factor V Leiden thrombophilia

In a patient with acute kidney injury, which cardiac dysrhythmia is expected?

D. Prolonged PR interval

For a patient with tricyclic antidepressant toxicity, you should expect to treat ventricular dysrhythmias with which cardiac medication?

A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B. Procainamide (Pronestyl)
C. Quinidine (Quinidex)
D. Amiodarone (Cordarone)

D. Amiodarone (Cordarone)

In a patient with acute kidney injury, which cardiac dysrhythmia is expected?

D. Prolonged PR interval

Why do geriatric patients respond differently to shock than younger patients?

Geriatric patients have decreased physiologic reserves.

Which pathophysiologic change occurs in a patient with myxedema coma?

Decreased cardiac output

Which sign is characteristic of eclampsia?

Seizures

A transcutaneous pacemaker is most likely an intervention for which dysrhythmia?

Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II

Which of the following mechanisms would be involved when a patient jumps from a height and lands on their feet?

Axial loading

Which fracture is likely to cause arm shortening and rapid swelling?

A. Clavicular fracture
B. Humeral fracture
C. Scapular fracture
D. Elbow fracture

D. Elbow fracture

Using the Parkland formula (4 mL/kg/% total body toàn thân surface area), the nurse should administer which amount of fluid over 24 hours to a 50-kg patient with burns over 35% of the total body toàn thân surface area?

7,000 mL

Which dysrhythmia has an irregularly irregular ventricular response?
A. First-degree atrioventricular block
B. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
C. Sinus bradycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation

In atrial fibrillation, multiple ectopic atrial pacemakers fire chaotically in rapid succession. This causes a ventricular rhythm that is always irregularly irregular. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, sinus bradycardia, and first-degree atrioventricular block produce a regular pattern of QRS complexes.

Windshield wiper fluid contains which type of alcohol?

A. Ethylene glycol
B. Ethanol
C. Isopropanol
D. Methanol

Which organ is most commonly affected by leukostasis, a complication of leukemia?

A. Liver
B. Heart
C. Brain
D. Spleen

C. Brain

Which diagnostic test has the highest sensitivity for detecting renal calculi?

B. Helical computed tomography

When treating a patient with severe salicylate toxicity, you should expect to use which drug?

A. N-acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Naloxone (Narcan)
D. Cyproheptadine (Periactin)

B. Sodium bicarbonate

Which diagnostic test has the highest sensitivity for detecting renal calculi?

B. Helical computed tomography

Which finding is expected in a patient with shock caused by an isolated spinal cord injury?

Hypotension

Which physiologic effect results from hypoglycemia?

Release of epinephrine

Which area is the most common site for implantation of an ectopic pregnancy?

Ampulla

Calcium channel blockers are indicated to treat which dysrhythmia?

Atrial fibrillation

Which of the following spinal column injuries is most frequently caused by penetrating trauma?

Brown-Séquard syndrome

Which nerve injury is associated with a knee dislocation?

A. Median nerve
B. Sciatic nerve
C. Tibial nerve
D. Peroneal nerve

D. Peroneal nerve

For a patient with renal calculi, discharge instructions should include which dietary restriction?

C. Coffee

Circulating blood passes through which valve as it leaves the heart?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Pulmonary semilunar valve
C. Mitral valve
D. Aortic semilunar valve

Blood flows from the right atrium through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle. From there, blood flows through the pulmonic valve into the pulmonary artery to be oxygenated in the lungs. From the lungs, blood flows through the pulmonary vein to the left atrium and through the mitral valve into the left ventricle. From the left ventricle, blood flows through the aortic valve to the aorta

Which population accounts for almost two-thirds of toxic exposures?

A. Geriatric men
B. Pediatric patients
C. Pregnant women
D. College students

Which statement accurately characterizes hemophilia?

A. It causes frank exsanguination.
B. It occurs mainly in females.
C. It is passed on by males to their children.
D. Its chief complaint is severe joint pain.

D. Its chief complaint is severe joint pain.

Which finding suggests an open fracture?

A. Edema
B. Puncture wound
C. Obvious deformity
D. Contusion

B. Puncture wound

A patient with chronic toxicity from naproxen (Aleve) is likely to develop which problems?

A. Pulmonary edema and hypoglycemia
B. Rhabdomyolysis and hypertension
C. Respiratory depression and bradycardia
D. Increased bleeding time and thrombocytopenia

D. Increased bleeding time and thrombocytopenia

For a patient with renal calculi, discharge instructions should include which dietary restriction?

C. Coffee

Which manifestation should you expect in a patient with shock?

Increased blood glucose level

For a patient with HELLP syndrome, which laboratory test results should you expect to see?

Decreased platelet level

For a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome, which agent is not part of the recommended management?

Nitroprusside (Nitropress)

Which intervention is indicated for the initial management of tricyclic antidepressant toxicity?

A. Dopamine (Intropin) infusion
B. Gastric lavage
C. Administration of activated charcoal with sorbitol
D. Hemodialysis

C. Administration of activated charcoal with sorbitol

In the PAAS mnemonic for performing automated external defibrillation, what does the P stand for?
A. Primary
B. Percutaneous
C. Power
D. Pulse

The PAAS mnemonic stands for:
Power: Turn on the power for the unit.
Attach: Attach the pads that obtain the cardiac rhythm and deliver the hands-không lấy phí shock.
Analyze: Allow a short time for the automated external defibrillator to analyze the patient's rhythm. During this time, do not move the patient.
Shock: If appropriate for the patient's rhythm, deliver the shock with a semiautomated external defibrillator or allow a fully automated external defibrillator to deliver it automatically.

Which statement accurately characterizes immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A. It is caused by immune autoreactive antibodies.
B. It occurs primarily in adolescents.
C. It is more common in women.
D. It follows a bacterial infection.

A. It is caused by immune autoreactive antibodies.

Elevation of the scrotum is likely to cause decreased pain in which disorder?

C. Epididymitis

After being exposed to an organophosphate insecticide, a landscaping worker presents to the emergency department. Decontamination should begin with which step?

A. Brush the insecticide off the patient.
B. Remove the patient's clothing.
C. Place the patient is a well-ventilated, isolated area.
D. Apply a neutralizing agent.

Elevation of the scrotum is likely to cause decreased pain in which disorder?

C. Epididymitis

Which factor places the patient risk for distributive shock?

Presence of an invasive device, such as a urinary catheter or feeding tube

Apgar scoring is used to assess a neonate's condition based on which parameters?

Color, heart rate, reflex irritability, muscle tone, and respiratory effort

Which statement does not accurately characterize nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) administration?

Monitor the patient's vital signs every 2 hours while giving intravenous nitroglycerin.

When assessing for arterial injury, which factor should you consider?

A. Arterial injuries may not require repair.
B. Arterial injuries are associated with low-impact trauma.
C. A distal pulse is not detectable if an arterial injury exists.
D. Arterial injuries can result from compression due to prolonged skeletal traction.

A. Arterial injuries may not require repair.

With which toxicity should you expect to find tall, peaked T waves on an electrocardiogram tracing?

A. Central nervous system stimulant
B. Beta-blocker
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Digitalis

D. Digitalis

Urinary alkalinization increases the renal elimination of which substance?

A. Atropine
B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. Phenobarbital (Luminal)
D. Cyanide

Among patients with sickle cell disease, which disorder is the leading cause of mortality and morbidity?

A. Pneumonia
B. Acute chest syndrome
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Cor pulmonale

B. Acute chest syndrome

Which substance is the most common component of renal calculi?

A. Calcium oxalate

Which disorder is potentially reversible if the cause is immediately treated?
A. Pulseless electrical activity
B. Bundle branch block
C. Long QT syndrome
D. Third-degree atrioventricular block

In pulseless electrical activity, some cardiac activity is present but no pulse is palpable. Pulseless electrical activity is usually a preterminal rhythm, but survival is possible if a reversible cause is identified and immediately treated. The common causes of bundle branch block include acute myocardial infarction, hypertension, cardiomyopathy, congestive heart failure, and degenerative diseases of the electrical conduction system, which are not immediately treatable. The treatment of long QT syndrome depends on symptom severity and the underlying cause. Treatment does not immediately reverse this dysrhythmia. Third-degree atrioventricular block can be permanent or transient, depending on its cause.

Which substance is the most common component of renal calculi?

A. Calcium oxalate

Amputation by which mechanism has the best chance for a good outcome after replantation?

A. Dog bite
B. Snow blower
C. Tree grinder
D. Meat slicer

D. Meat slicer

During anaerobic metabolism, which substance accumulates in cells?

Lactate

In a pregnant woman in the third trimester, the fetal heart rate is 90 beats per minute. Which intervention is the priority this time?

Administer high-flow oxygen.

Which electrocardiogram leads reflect the inferior wall?

Leads II, III, and aVF

A transcutaneous pacemaker is most likely an intervention for which dysrhythmia?
A. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type I
B. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II
C. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
D. Wandering atrial pacemaker

The use of a transcutaneous pacemaker is an intervention for second-degree atrioventricular block, type II. The affected patient's condition is unstable because this type of block can progress to third-degree atrioventricular block. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type I, usually does not require intervention. If a decreased heart rate causes signs and symptoms, the physician may order atropine. Treatment for Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome can include synchronized cardioversion but not transcutaneous pacemaker use. A patient with a wandering atrial pacemaker usually is asymptomatic. If he or she is symptomatic, expect to treat the underlying condition

Exposure to which caustic substance may call for the application of calcium gluconate (Calgonate)?

A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Hydrofluoric acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Sulfuric acid

What is the most common reason for a patient with sickle cell crisis to seek care in the emergency department?

A. Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary emboli
C. Pain
D. Meningitis

C. Pain

For a patient with nonoliguric acute kidney injury, which treatment is indicated?

A. Volume replacement

For a patient with nonoliguric acute kidney injury, which treatment is indicated?

A. Volume replacement

In a patient with toxicity due to the beta-blocker sotalol (Betapace), which electrocardiogram findings should you expect to see?

A. Bradycardia and atrioventricular block
B. Third-degree atrioventricular block and tall, peaked T waves
C. Prolonged QT intervals and tall, peaked T waves
D. Bradycardia and prolonged QT intervals

D. Bradycardia and prolonged QT intervals

A patient has the highest risk of infection after being impaled with which object?

A. Knife
B. Nail gun
C. Wooden fence post
D. Sewing needle

C. Wooden fence post

Which type of shock results from the release of endotoxins?

Distributive

Which condition can cause a spontaneous abortion?

Infection

A man, age 65, presents with chest pain and changes on his 12-lead electrocardiogram tracing. Which change suggests an acute myocardial infarction?

ST-segment elevation greater than 1 mm in two or more contiguous leads

During which phase of the cardiac cycle do myocardial cells receive their blood supply?
A. Opening of the aortic valve
B. Ventricular diastole
C. Blood flow through the pulmonary vein
D. Activation of the bundle of His

Myocardial cells receive their blood supply only during ventricular diastole, when the ventricle is relaxed. This does not occur when the aortic valve opens, blood flows through the pulmonary vein, or the bundle of His is activated. The left ventricle contracts to push blood out when the aortic valve is open. Blood flows from the lungs through the pulmonary vein to the left atrium. The activation of the bundle of His sends the impulse to the ventricular muscle, resulting in ventricular contraction

For a patient with iron toxicity, which laboratory test result should you expect to see?

A. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level
B. Decreased blood glucose level
C. Decreased red blood cell count
D. Elevated white blood cell count

Which factor may cause a decreased platelet count?

A. Ibuprofen (Motrin) use
B. Sepsis
C. Increased bone marrow production
D. Decreased splenic sequestration

B. Sepsis

The toxic ingestion of which drug can prolong the partial thromboplastin time?

A. Ibuprofen (Advil)
B. Aspirin (Bayer)
C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D. Celecoxib (Celebrex)

C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Which statement correctly defines oliguria?

C. Urine output is less than 400 mL in 24 hours.

Which statement correctly defines oliguria?

C. Urine output is less than 400 mL in 24 hours.

When shock causes cells to switch from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism, which sự kiện occurs?

Digestive organelles leak destructive enzymes into cells, which begin to be autodigested

The physician performs a manual vaginal examination, using sterile technique. Which finding indicates that fluid found during the examination is amniotic fluid?

The pH of the fluid is neutral.

A man, age 42, presents to the emergency department with sharp, severe chest pain that increases with inspiration. In addition, he has a fever. The nurse immediately obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram tracing, which demonstrates ST-segment elevation in all leads except aVR and V1. Based on the history and electrocardiographic findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

Pericarditis

Radial nerve damage is associated with which fracture?

A. Humeral fracture
B. Scapular fracture
C. Shoulder fracture
D. Navicular fracture

A. Humeral fracture

Early-stream hematuria suggests an abnormality in which genitourinary structure?

D. Urethra

A rhythm strip shows five dark vertical lines between R waves. Using the sequence method, what is the calculated heart rate?
A. 60 beats per minute
B. 75 beats per minute
C. 100 beats per minute
D. 150 beats per minute

To calculate heart rate using the sequence method, select an R wave that falls on a dark vertical line. Number the next six consecutive dark vertical lines as follows: 300, 150, 100, 75, 60, and 50. Note where the next R wave falls in relation to the six dark vertical lines already marked. This is the heart rate. In the strip with five dark vertical lines between R waves, the calculated heart rate is 60 beats per minute. For greater accuracy, learn to count the lines between the dark vertical lines to determine the actual rate.

In a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone, which finding should you expect?

A. Fever
B. Hyperactivity
C. Petechiae
D. Confusion

D. Confusion

Magnesium hydroxide effectively reduces the blood level of which poison?

A. Ethylene glycol
B. Mercury
C. Turpentine
D. Iron

Early-stream hematuria suggests an abnormality in which genitourinary structure?

D. Urethra

The appropriate care of a patient with an open fracture includes which intervention?

A. Cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.
B. Do not irrigate deep lacerations.
C. Irrigate a puncture wound with copious amounts of normal saline solution.
D. Position the extremity or below the level of the heart.

A. Cover the wound with a dry sterile dressing.

Which intervention might you perform initially to manage a patient with obstructive shock?

Emergency needle thoracentesis

What is the initial intervention for a patient in labor who presents with shoulder dystocia?

Position the mother with her legs hyperflexed over the abdomen.

Which medication is a first-line agent for managing cardiac arrest?

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

For a patient who is suspected of having an aortic dissection, which intervention is appropriate?

Administer a beta-blocker to control the heart rate.

Which sign is characteristic of preeclampsia?

Proteinuria

Which finding should you expect in a 70-kg patient with an estimated blood loss of 1,700 mL?

Anxiety and confusion

The immobilization of which fracture depends on the patient's comfort and functional demands?

A. Shoulder fracture
B. Humerus fracture
C. Elbow fracture
D. Clavicle fracture

D. Clavicle fracture

Which condition may cause urine retention?

A. Spinal cord injury

Which condition may cause urine retention?

A. Spinal cord injury

Acetone is a toxic metabolite of which alcohol?

A. Methanol
B. Ethanol
C. Isopropanol
D. Ethylene glycol

Which rhythm is a common cause of sudden cardiac arrest?
A. Ventricular tachycardia
B. Supraventricular tachycardia
C. Sinus tachycardia
D. Junctional tachycardia

A common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in adults is ventricular tachycardia that, if untreated, deteriorates into ventricular fibrillation. Supraventricular tachycardia, sinus tachycardia, and junctional tachycardia are not causes of sudden cardiac arrest.

Damage to which area of the heart is most likely to result in severe heart failure?
A. Inferior wall
B. Posterior wall
C. Lateral wall
D. Anterior wall

Heart failure is likely to result from an anterior wall infarction, which produces left ventricular failure, pulmonary congestion, and a reduction in contractility. Although heart failure can also result from damage to other areas of the heart, anterior wall infarctions are most commonly associated with severe failure

Poisoning with which heavy metal causes a garlic breath odor?

A. Arsenic
B. Mercury
C. Lead
D. Zinc

Which substance can cause the appearance of red or dark urine?

A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

A patient reports a sudden, sharp pain from the heel to the back of the leg after running. Which injury should you suspect?

A. Quadriceps tear
B. Achilles tendon rupture
C. Heel fracture
D. Patellar dislocation

B. Achilles tendon rupture

Which substance can cause the appearance of red or dark urine?

A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Which sign suggests a missed abortion?

Uterus that fails to grow

Which patient is having a hypertensive emergency?

A patient with a blood pressure of 190/150 mm Hg, headache, and blurred vision

Which manifestation is an early sign of hypovolemic shock in adults?

Tachypnea

Which sign or symptom is not expected in a patient with acute heart failure?

Bilateral wheezing

An anxious patient presents to the emergency department with severe pelvic pain and left shoulder pain. She states that she is 12 weeks pregnant. Based on this information, which intervention is the priority for this patient?

Establish intravenous access with a large-bore catheter.

When caring for a multiple trauma patient with a narrowed pulse pressure and anxiety, you should consider which intervention the priority?

Initiate large-caliber intravenous lines

Which complication of a fracture results in petechiae over the upper half of the body toàn thân?

A. Fat embolism syndrome
B. Volkmanns contracture
C. Avascular necrosis
D. Compartment syndrome

A. Fat embolism syndrome

Which sexually transmitted infection produces epididymitis in men and pelvic inflammatory disease in women?

C. Chlamydia infection

Which sexually transmitted infection produces epididymitis in men and pelvic inflammatory disease in women?

C. Chlamydia infection

Which toxic alcohol may cause urine to fluoresce under a Wood's lamp?

A. Ethanol
B. Ethylene glycol
C. Methanol
D. Isopropanol

Which disorder results from the inflammation, rupture, or erosion of atheromatous plaque in the coronary arteries?
A. Pericarditis
B. Acute coronary syndrome
C. Heart failure
D. Hypertensive crisis

Acute coronary syndrome results from the inflammation, rupture, or erosion of atheromatous plaque in the coronary arteries. Pericarditis, heart failure, and hypertensive crisis result from other causes.

The treatment of rhabdomyolysis calls for administration of which medication?

B. Sodium bicarbonate

For a cardiac arrest in the emergency department, what is the priority treatment for ventricular fibrillation?
A. Rescue breathing
B. Cardiac compressions
C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. Vasopressin (Pitressin

The recommendation for management of an arrest due to ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia is immediate defibrillation. High quality chest compressions are begun immediately while the defibrillator is attached and charged. Neither of these interventions are delayed for ventilations or medications. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is the first medication administered. Vasopressin is no longer recommended as a first-line drug in cardiac arrest. It has been shown that vasopressin offer no advantage over epinephrine.

The treatment of rhabdomyolysis calls for administration of which medication?

B. Sodium bicarbonate

Which cardiac biomarker may result in a more timely and definitive diagnosis of myocardial injury?

Troponin

A complete disruption of a muscle or tendon belongs to which classification?

A. Second-degree sprain
B. Third-degree sprain
C. Second-degree strain
D. Third-degree strain

D. Third-degree strain

A patient with an isolated blunt cardiac injury is most risk for which type of shock

Cardiogenic

At which point in pregnancy does preeclampsia usually occur?

22 weeks' gestation

A woman, age 52, is found unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless her desk an hour after returning from lunch. What is the most likely cause of her cardiac arrest?

Coronary heart disease

You are teaching a patient with an ankle fracture how to use crutches after discharge. Which patient statement indicates an accurate understanding of your discharge instructions?

A. I'll place the crutches about 6 inches to each side.
B. I'll lean on my underarms when I'm moving.
C. I'll keep my elbows a 45-degree angle.
D. While leaning on the crutches, I'll bring my injured leg forward first.

A. I'll place the crutches about 6 inches to each side.

Which disorder contributes to a continued rise of nitrogenous wastes in a patient with acute kidney injury?

B. Fever

Which disorder contributes to a continued rise of nitrogenous wastes in a patient with acute kidney injury?

B. Fever

Which patient with a myocardial infarction is most likely to present with crushing chest pain that lasts longer than 30 minutes?
A. A man, age 48
B. A man, age 50, with diabetes mellitus
C. A woman, age 62, with hypertension
D. A man, age 86

Of these patients, the man, age 48, is most likely to present with crushing chest pain that lasts longer than 30 minutes. Up to 20 percent of patients with an acute myocardial infarction do not experience chest pain. Patients with diabetes mellitus are more prone to neuropathy and may not experience pain. Women have more atypical symptoms, such as profound fatigue and shortness of breath. Among patients older than age 85, the classic symptom of acute myocardial infarction is shortness of breath.

A man, age 64, presents to the emergency department with severe dyspnea and weakness. A physical examination reveals bilateral crackles, S3, heart sound and dependent edema. Which disorder is the most likely cause of his findings?
A. Pericarditis
B. Heart failure
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Hypertensive crisis

The signs and symptoms of heart failure include severe dyspnea, weakness, bilateral crackles, S3, heart sound dependent edema, orthopnea, fatigue, abdominal discomfort, and jugular vein distention. Pericarditis, aortic aneurysm, and hypertensive crisis produce different constellations of findings

Which disorder involves the retrograde passage of infected urine?

C. Epididymitis

Which disorder involves the retrograde passage of infected urine?

C. Epididymitis

Damage to which area of the heart is most likely to result in severe heart failure?

Anterior wall

A patient with compartment syndrome undergoes arteriography to identify which cause of this disorder?

A. Nerve compression
B. Muscle ischemia
C. Thrombus
D. High compartment pressure

C. Thrombus

You should expect to administer ibuprofen (Motrin) to a patient with which disorder?

Acute coronary syndrome

Which closed fracture site is associated with the smallest amount of blood loss?

A. Humerus
B. Ankle
C. Elbow
D. Tibia and fibula

C. Elbow

Which disorder is more prevalent in patients with diabetes mellitus?

C. Pyelonephritis

Which disorder is more prevalent in patients with diabetes mellitus?

C. Pyelonephritis

Which disorder is likely to produce pathologic Q. waves on an electrocardiogram tracing?
A. Pericarditis
B. Myocardial necrosis
C. Recent ischemic sự kiện
D. Unstable angina

Pathologic Q. waves that measure more than 0.04 second in width and 25 percent or more of the overall QRS height occur within 24 hours of a myocardial infarction and indicate myocardial necrosis. Electrocardiographic changes associated with pericarditis include ST-segment elevation of 1 to 3 mm in all electrocardiogram leads, except aVR and V1. T-wave inversion occurs 6 to 24 hours after an ischemic sự kiện and can persist for months to years. Unstable angina can produce ST-segment depression, T-wave inversion, or a normal electrocardiogram tracing.

After an acute myocardial infarction, which cardiac biomarker is released first?

Myoglobin

When determining the appropriate splint for a patient with an angulated wrist fracture, which factor should you consider?

A. Commercially manufactured immobilization devices are acceptable.
B. Air splints provide the greatest comfort.
C. Distal pulse assessment is difficult after traction splint application.
D. Traction splints are indicated for angulated fractures.

A. Commercially manufactured immobilization devices are acceptable.

Which laboratory test is the primary diagnostic indicator of rhabdomyolysis?

D. Serum creatine phosphokinase level

The treatment of rhabdomyolysis calls for administration of which medication?

Sodium bicarbonate

In acute coronary syndrome, which finding is caused by phrenic nerve stimulation?
A. Nausea
B. Vomiting
C. Hiccups
D. Diaphoresis

Hiccups are caused by phrenic nerve stimulation. Phrenic nerve stimulation does not produce nausea, vomiting, or diaphoresis.

After an acute myocardial infarction, which cardiac biomarker returns to baseline last?
A. Myoglobin
B. Troponin I
C. Troponin T
D. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB)

Troponin T is the last biomarker to return to baseline 14 to 21 days after the myocardial infarction. Myoglobin returns to baseline within 18 to 24 hours. Creatine kinase-MB returns to baseline between 48 and 72 hours. Troponin I returns to baseline between 5 and 7 days.

A blockage of the left anterior descending coronary artery causes the infarction of which part of the left ventricle?

Anterior wall

Which intervention is immediately indicated for a finger injury from a high-pressure paint gun?

A. Provide a referral for follow-up with an orthopedist.
B. Prepare for surgery.
C. Apply a metal finger splint in the position of function.
D. Prepare for nail trephination.

B. Prepare for surgery.

Hyperkalemia-induced cardiac arrest requires which treatment in addition to cardiopulmonary resuscitation?

Calcium chloride

You should expect to administer ibuprofen (Motrin) to a patient with which disorder?
A. Acute heart failure
B. Pericarditis
C. Hypertensive crisis
D. Acute coronary syndrome

Because pericarditis is primarily an inflammatory complication, patients usually respond to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as ibuprofen (Motrin). Furosemide (Lasix) is used to reduce preload in a patient with acute heart failure. Vasodilators, such as nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) or nitroprusside (Nitropress), are used to treat hypertensive crisis. Aspirin (Bayer), not ibuprofen, is given to a patient with acute coronary syndrome.

In addition to cardiopulmonary resuscitation, sodium bicarbonate is the treatment for cardiac arrest caused by which disorder?

Tricyclic antidepressant overdose

Which statement accurately describes the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?
A. Atherosclerosis includes lipid accumulation in the medial lining of the arteries.
B. Atherosclerosis causes calcification and sclerosis of the intimal layer of arteries.
C. Atherosclerosis causes the thickening of the walls of the aorta.
D. Atherosclerosis affects the small arteries and arterioles.

The pathogenesis of atherosclerosis includes lipid accumulation in the intimal lining of the arteries, calcification and sclerosis of the medial layer of arteries, and the thickening of the walls of the arteries. Usually, atherosclerosis affects the aorta and the coronary, cerebral, femoral, and other large or medium-size arteries.

Drugs from which category reduce preload and afterload?

Vasodilators

Which drug is administered to treat acutely decompensated heart failure?
A. Vasopressin (Pitressin)
B. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
C. Nesiritide (Natrecor)
D. Amiodarone (Cordarone)

Nesiritide (Natrecor) is administered to treat acutely decompensated heart failure. Esmolol (Brevibloc) is a vasodilator used to treat hypertensive crisis. Epinephrine (Adrenalin) is the first-line drug for cardiac arrest. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. Vasopressin is used to treat diabetes insipidus; it is no longer recommended as a first-line drug in cardiac arrest.

Which statement accurately describes the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis?

Atherosclerosis affects the small arteries and arterioles.

Which disorder is most likely to cause substernal chest pain rest that occurs the same time each day?
A. Preinfarction angina
B. Unstable angina
C. Pericarditis
D. Prinzmetal angina

Prinzmetal (variant) angina occurs when the patient is rest and usually the same time each day. Patients with pericarditis have continuous anterior chest pain that worsens with deep inspiration. Patients with preinfarction (unstable) angina complain of frequent episodes of chest pain on exertion, which is least partially relieved with nitrates.

When performing right-sided electrocardiography, which lead should you place the fifth intercostal space in the right midaxillary line?

RV6

A patient presents with a headache, blurred vision, and a blood pressure of 280/150 mm Hg. Which drug is the most effective in rapidly managing this patient's disorder?
A. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
B. Nesiritide (Natrecor)
C. Alteplase (Activase)
D. Nitroprusside (Nitropress)

This patient is experiencing a hypertensive emergency, which requires blood pressure reduction within 1 to 2 hours to prevent new or worsening end-organ damage. Nitroprusside (Nitropress) is a potent arterial and venous dilator with an immediate onset of action. Nesiritide (Natrecor) is used to treat acutely decompensated heart failure. Alteplase (Activase) is a fibrinolytic drug used to reperfuse a hypoperfused myocardium and epinephrine (Adrenalin) is used in cardiac arrest.

In addition to cardiopulmonary resuscitation, sodium bicarbonate is the treatment for cardiac arrest caused by which disorder?
A. Pulmonary embolus
B. Hypokalemia
C. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose
D. Beta-blocker toxicity

Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat cardiac arrest caused by a tricyclic antidepressant overdose. It is also indicated in cardiac arrest caused by hyperkalemia but not hypokalemia. Ventilatory support and the consideration of fibrinolytic drugs are indicated for pulmonary embolus. Glucagon is used to treat cardiac arrest caused by beta-blocker toxicity.

Which drug reduces preload and afterload?

Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)

Which rhythm is a common cause of sudden cardiac arrest?

Ventricular tachycardia

After a patient with a myocardial infarction receives a fibrinolytic agent, which finding is a marker of reperfusion?
A. Accelerated idioventricular rhythm
B. Chest pain only on exertion
C. ST-segment depression
D. Precipitous drop in blood pressure.

Markers of reperfusion include reperfusion dysrhythmias, such as accelerated idioventricular rhythms; the resolution of chest pain; and the normalization of ST changes. A precipitous drop in blood pressure is a complication of fibrinolytic therapy

Which drug is administered to treat acutely decompensated heart failure?

Nesiritide (Natrecor)

Which drug reduces preload and afterload?
A. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
C. Dopamine (Intropin)
D. Phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine)

Because nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) is a vasodilator, it reduces preload and afterload. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is an inotrope used to improve cardiac contractility. Dopamine (Intropin) and phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) are vasopressors used to promote vasoconstriction and increase the systemic vascular resistance.

A patient presents with a headache, blurred vision, and a blood pressure of 280/150 mm Hg. Which drug is the most effective in rapidly managing this patient's disorder?

Nitroprusside (Nitropress)

Which blood pressure reading is classified as a hypertensive crisis?
A. Diastolic pressure of 110 mm Hg
B. Systolic pressure of 139 mm Hg
C. Diastolic pressure of 140 mm Hg
D. Systolic pressure of 160 mm Hg

Patients with hypertensive crisis usually have a systolic blood pressure of more than 240 mm Hg or a diastolic blood pressure of more than 140 mm Hg. The other readings are not classified as hypertensive crisis.

Which medication is the first one administered to a patient with pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

Which medication is the first one administered to a patient with pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
A. Atropine
B. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
C. Naloxone (Narcan)
D. Vasopressin (Pitressin)

The first-line drug for managing cardiac arrest from pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is epinephrine (Adrenalin). Atropine is used to treat bradycardia. Naloxone is used to treat bradycardia and respiratory depression or arrest secondary to opiate overdose. Vasopressin is no longer recommended as a first-line drug in cardiac arrest. It has been shown that vasopressin offer no advantage over epinephrine.

A patient with electrocardiogram changes in leads V3 and V4 that reflect an infarction is experiencing an injury to which area of the heart?

The right coronary artery supplies which area of the heart?
A. Left atrium
B. Anterior wall of the left ventricle
C. Intraventricular septum
D. Posterior surface of the left ventricle

The right coronary artery supplies the posterior surface of left ventricle, right atrium, right ventricle, bundle of His (which is also supplied by the left circumflex branch), and sinoatrial node in 50% to 60% of the population. (The left circumflex branch supplies the sinoatrial node in 40%to 50% of the population.) The left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle and the intraventricular septum. The left circumflex branch supplies the left atrium.

Atropine is most likely to restore adequate perfusion in which situation?

Cholinergic-induced bradycardia

A patient with electrocardiogram changes in leads V3 and V4 that reflect an infarction is experiencing an injury to which area of the heart?
A. Septal
B. Inferior
C. Lateral
D. Anterior

If the anterior area of the heart is affected, leads V2 through V4 are abnormal. Leads V1 and V2 are abnormal if the septal area of the heart is affected. If the lateral area of the heart is affected, changes occur in leads I, aVL, V5, and V6. If the inferior area of the heart is affected, leads II, III, and aVF show changes.

Which disorder results from the inflammation, rupture, or erosion of atheromatous plaque in the coronary arteries?

Acute coronary syndrome

Which drug can precipitate refractory hypotension in a patient with a myocardial infarction who takes a phosphodiesterase inhibitor?
A. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
B. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
C. Adenosine (Adenocard)
D. Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)

Do not give nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) to a patient who takes a phosphodiesterase inhibitor (to treat erectile dysfunction). Both drugs are vasodilators, and concomitant use is contraindicated because it can precipitate refractory hypotension. Metoprolol (Lopressor), amiodarone (Cordarone), and adenosine (Adenocard) do not produce this effect.

The left circumflex branch supplies which area of the heart?

Lateral wall of the left ventricle

Which drug is used to manage a patient with a dissecting aneurysm?
A. Nesiritide (Natrecor)
B. Eptifibatide (Integrilin)
C. Esmolol (Brevibloc)
D. Amiodarone (Cordarone)

Dissecting aneurysms are commonly managed with a beta-blocker, such as esmolol (Brevibloc), to control the heart rate and reduce the blood pressure. The target systolic blood pressure is 90 to 120 mm Hg. Eptifibatide (Integrilin), a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor, reduces the risk of thrombus development and is not given to a patient risk for imminent rupture and probable surgery. Nesiritide (Natrecor) is administered for acutely decompensated heart failure but not a dissecting aneurysm. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is used to manage disorders such as ventricular dysrhythmias

Which leads reflect ischemic changes in the right coronary artery?

Leads II, III, and aVF

Which medication is infused to improve cardiac contractility?
A. Nicardipine (Cardene)
B. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
D. Nitroprusside (Nitropress)

Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is used to improve cardiac contractility. Norepinephrine (Levophed) is administered for the short-term treatment of hypotension or shock. The calcium channel blocker nicardipine (Cardene) is used to manage hypertensive emergencies. Nitroprusside (Nitropress) is also used for hypertensive emergencies

Which drug is used to manage a patient with a dissecting aneurysm?

Esmolol (Brevibloc)

Which class of drugs decreases ischemia after an infarction and nonfatal acute myocardial infarction?
A. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
B. Beta-blockers
C. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
D. Low-molecular-weight heparins

Beta-blockers have been found to decrease ischemia after an infarction and nonfatal acute myocardial infarction. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, such as abciximab (ReoPro), eptifibatide (Integrilin), and tirofiban (Aggrastat), reduce the risk of thrombus development independent of aspirin and heparin therapies. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, such as enalapril (Vasotec), captopril (Capoten), and lisinopril (Zestril), should be started within 24 hours of an acute myocardial infarction and have been associated with reduced mortality. Low-molecular-weight heparins, such as enoxaparin (Lovenox) and dalteparin (Fragmin) are used to prevent new clot formation and the reocclusion of the coronary vessel.

Which disorder is characterized by ST-segment elevation in all electrocardiogram leads?
A. Right ventricular infarction
B. Pericarditis
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Unstable angina

Patients with pericarditis demonstrate ST-segment elevation in all electrocardiogram leads. Right ventricular infarction, which is present in up to 40 percent of patients with inferior myocardial infarctions (ST-segment elevation in leads II, II, and aVF), is evidenced by ST-segment elevation in right-sided leads (RV3 through RV6) and elevation in inferior leads. Patients with hyperkalemia show tall, peaked T waves on electrocardiogram tracings. Patients with unstable angina may show ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion

Which drug is indicated for the treatment of hyperkalemia?
A. Calcium chloride
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Amiodarone (Cordarone)

Calcium chloride is recommended for hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, and calcium channel blocker toxicity. Magnesium is useful in treating torsades de pointes and suspected hypomagnesemia. Sodium bicarbonate is reserved for treating cardiac arrest in patients with a specific disorder, such as hyperkalemia, preexisting bicarbonate-responsive acidosis, or tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Amiodarone (Cordarone) is used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias, such as monomorphic ventricular tachycardia.

Question 12: For a patient with acute heart failure, which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer a rapid-acting diuretic, as prescribed.
B. Place the patient in the supine position.
C. Administer an analgesic, as prescribed.
D. Rapidly administer fluids to replace lost volume.

Interventions for acute heart failure include administering a rapid-acting diuretic, such as furosemide (Lasix), to reduce preload. Interventions also typically include placing the patient in the high-Fowler position rather than the supine position. Analgesics usually are not needed to manage heart failure, and fluid administration is contraindicated because fluid overload can cause heart failure.

Which leads reflect ischemic changes in the right coronary artery?
A. Leads II, III, and aVF
B. Leads V1 to V4
C. Leads V5 to V6
D. Leads I and aVL

Leads II, III, and aVF reflect areas of the heart supplied by the right coronary artery. Leads V1 to V4 reflect the left anterior descending artery. Leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 reflect the left circumflex artery.

For a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome, which agent is not part of the recommended management?
A. Oxygen
B. Aspirin (Bayer)
C. Morphine
D. Nitroprusside (Nitropress)

An easy way to remember the recommended therapies for a patient with suspected acute coronary syndrome is to use the mnemonic MONA, which stands for morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and aspirin. Nitroprusside (Nitropress) is a potent vasodilator used to treat severe hypertension but not acute coronary syndrome

Which cardiac biomarker may result in a more timely and definitive diagnosis of myocardial injury?
A. Creatine kinase-MB
B. Myoglobin
C. Troponin
D. Creatine kinase

Troponin I and troponin T are detectable early after an acute myocardial infarction within 3 to 4 hours and aid in the definitive diagnosis of a myocardial infarction. Creatine kinase and creatine kinase-MB used to be the gold standard for a definitive diagnosis of a acute myocardial infarction. However, their initial elevation occurs 4 to 8 hours after a myocardial infarction. Myoglobin is initially elevated 1 to 2 hours after a myocardial infarction, but this biomarker is not specific for a myocardial infarction

What is the first step when managing a patient with a suspected spine injury?

If you suspect someone has a spinal injury: Call 911 or emergency medical help. Keep the person still. Place heavy towels or rolled sheets on both sides of the neck or hold the head and neck to prevent movement. Avoid moving the head or neck.

Which of the following is the most common mechanism for spinal trauma?

The most common causes of spinal cord injuries in the United States are: Motor vehicle accidents. Auto and motorcycle accidents are the leading cause of spinal cord injuries, accounting for almost half of new spinal cord injuries each year. Falls.

Which of the following is the most studied mechanism of injury of a person with a suspected spine injury?

We found that translation/ rotation was the most common mechanism of injury (37.5%), followed by compression (27.5%) and distraction (22.5%). The predominance of translation/rotation mechanism is not unexpected as it represents the highest impact injury. Tải thêm tài liệu liên quan đến nội dung bài viết Which of the following is the first step performed when initiating spinal protection quizlet?